
Jul 11, 2025
Real Estate LawUnderstanding Marriage Settlements & Property Regimes in the Philippines
1. What is a marriage settlement?
A marriage settlement is a written agreement executed between two parties who plan to get married, prior to the celebration of their marriage. This agreement fixes the terms and conditions that will govern their present and future property relations during the marriage. These agreements are more commonly known as “Pre-Nuptual Agreements.”
2. Are we required to have a marriage settlement before we get married?
No, it is not mandatory that couples planning to get married should execute a marriage settlement. In the absence of a marriage settlement, or when the property regime agreed upon is void, the system of Absolute Community of Property as established under the Family Code shall govern (Article 75 of the Family Code of the Philippines).
3. What is a property regime?
It refers to the set of rules agreed upon by the parties to a marriage which govern their property relations during marriage. Our Family Code provides three (3) different types property regimes:
(1) Absolute Community of Property;
(2) Conjugal Partnership of Gains;
(3) Complete Separation of Properties.
Nevertheless, the future spouses may customize their property regime to suit their preferences, provided that the provisions are not contrary to law.
4. What are the differences between the three property regimes?
In Absolute Community of Property, the husband and the wife become co-owners of all the properties that they bring into the marriage and those acquired by either or both of them during the duration of their marriage, save for some exceptions (Article 90, Family Code).
In Conjugal Partnership of Gains, the husband and wife retain ownership over their respective properties acquired prior to their marriage. The parties then place in a common fund the proceeds, products, fruits, and income from their separate properties, and those acquired by either or both spouses through their efforts or by chance during their marriage. Upon dissolution of the marriage or of the partnership, the net gains or benefits obtained by either or both spouses shall be divided equally between them, unless otherwise agreed in the marriage settlements (Article 106, Family Code).
In Complete Separation of Properties, each spouse shall own, dispose of, possess, administer and enjoy his or her own separate estate, without need of the consent of the other. To each spouse shall belong all earnings from his or her profession, business or industry and all fruits, natural, industrial or civil, due or received during the marriage from his or her separate property (Article 145, Family Code of the Philippines). The parties may choose to have this property regime cover their present, future, or all of their property in general. It may, at their discretion, pertain to their property as a whole or partially. In the latter case, the properties not agreed upon as separate shall pertain to the absolute community (Article 144, Family Code).
5. What property regime will govern our marriage?
The property regime that will govern your marriage depends on whether or not you and your spouse choose to execute a marriage settlement prior to the celebration of your marriage. Should both of you decide to enter into a particular form of marriage settlement, then such shall govern. However, if no marriage settlement is adopted or when the marriage settlement is void and the marriage was celebrated under the auspices of the Family Code, or after August 03,1988, the Absolute Community of Property regime will automatically apply.
However, for marriages that were celebrated prior to August 03, 1988, or during the effectivity of the provisions pertaining to property relations found in the New Civil Code, the then-prevailing property regime applicable in the absence of a marriage settlement or in case the one executed by the parties was deemed void, was the system of Conjugal Partnership of Gains.
Note that Complete Separation of Property is never presumed at the onset. To avail of this particular property regime, it must be specifically provided for in the marriage settlement, or there must be a judicial decree ordering such Complete Separation of Property. Instances when a judicial decree may be issued to this effect include marriages where one or both of the parties were parties to prior marriages that were dissolved due to the death of one spouse, and the surviving spouse failed to comply with the requirements under Article 103 of the Family Code. Another instance is where parties voluntarily file for the dissolution of their property regime before the court.
6. Must a marriage settlement be in writing?
Yes, a marriage settlement must be in writing to be enforceable. Oral agreements regarding the future property regime fail to comply with the provisions of Article 77 of the Family Code of the Philippines. For a marriage settlement to be enforceable --
a. It must be in writing;
b. It must be signed by both parties;
c. It must be made before the celebration of the marriage;
d. It must generally confine itself to property relations;
e. It must be duly registered in the civil registry and registry of property in order to bind third persons;
f. The marriage must be celebrated (Article 77, Family Code of the Philippines); and
g. If made by minors, their parents must consent by signing also; if by other incompetents, such as those under civil interdiction, the guardian must consent and also sign (Articles 78 and 79, Family Code).
7. Is a marriage settlement executed after the celebration of the marriage valid?
A marriage settlement must be executed before the celebration of marriage to be binding and enforceable (Article 77, Family Code).
8. My husband and I executed a pre-nuptial agreement before our wedding but we never registered the same with any government agency. Is it still valid?
As between the you and your husband, it is valid, since the marriage settlement takes the nature of a contract. Obligations arising from contracts have the force of law between the contracting parties and should be complied with in good faith (Article 1159, New Civil Code of the Philippines). However, your marriage settlement shall not bind third persons unless it is registered in the local civil registry where your marriage is recorded as well as in the proper registries of properties (Article 77, Family Code).
9. What if my husband and I decide to change certain terms in our marriage settlement after our marriage, is this allowed?
As a general rule, modifications made after the celebration of the marriage are void (Article 76, Family Code). However, the Family Code enumerates instances when modifications made after the marriage may be allowed, to wit:
(a) When the legal separation proceedings, if still pending, are terminated by reason of the reconciliation of the spouses; (Article 66[1], Family Code)
(b) When the final decree of legal separation is set aside by reason of the reconciliation of the spouses; (Article 66[2], Family Code)
(c) When the spouses who were legally separated reconciled and agreed to revive their former property regime; (Article 67, Family Code);
(d) If the aggrieved spouse petitions the court for sole administratorship of the conjugal partnership in case of abandonment by the other spouse or failure to comply with his or her obligations to the family; (Article 128, Family Code);
(e) When there was judicial separation of property under Article 135; or
(f) When the spouses jointly file a petition for the voluntary dissolution of their property regime; (Article 136, Family Code).
10. My fiancé and I executed a marriage settlement, but our marriage did not push through. What will happen to the marriage settlement agreed upon by us?
The marriage settlement would be rendered void. However, if there are provisions or stipulations in the marriage settlement that are independent of the celebration of the marriage, those stipulations may remain valid.
11. My fiancé was imprisoned and one of penalties the court imposed on him is civil interdiction. Can we still execute a marriage settlement?
Yes. The Family Code allows a person upon whom a sentence of civil interdiction has been pronounced to execute a marriage settlement, provided that a guardian appointed by a competent court shall be made a party to such agreement (Article 79, Family Code).
12. If we did not execute any marriage settlement before our marriage, may we still change our property relations during our marriage?
No, any modification to the marriage settlement must be made before the celebration of the marriage, for the modifications and changes to be valid. (Article 76 of the Family Code of the Philippines) However, you may jointly file a verified petition with the court for the voluntary dissolution of the absolute community or the conjugal partnership of gains, and for the separation of your common properties during their marriage (Article 136 of the Family Code).
13. I married my husband, an American, and we executed a pre-nuptial agreement. Would the pre-nuptial agreement be binding in the Philippines, despite the fact both the marriage and the marriage settlement was celebrated/executed in the United States?
Yes, the pre-nuptial agreement between you and your husband would be valid, unless there are provisions which are contrary to our country's public policy. The property relations of the spouses shall be governed by Philippine laws, in the absence of any contrary stipulations in the marriage settlement, regardless of the place of the celebration of the marriage and the residence of the spouses (Article 80 of the Family Code).
14. If my present partner and I are unmarried, what property regime governs our relationship?
The regime is that of co-ownership. When parties who are capacitated to contract marriage live together as man and wife without the benefit of marriage or under a void marriage, they are deemed as co-owners in equal share of their wages, salaries and properties (Article 147, Family Code).
15. Are we allowed to revive the property regime that was subsisting during our marriage, despite the fact that we had been legally separated?
Yes. You can revive the property regime that was in existence during your marriage as an exception to the rule that modifications to the marriage settlements must only be made before the celebration of the marriage. To be more specific, Article 76 of the Family Code allows spouses who were legally separated but later on, reconciled and agreed to revive their former property regime, to modify their marriage settlements. However, the spouses may also elect for complete separation of properties.
16. My girlfriend and I have been living together as husband and wife without the benefit of marriage. Does she have a share in the properties I acquired despite the fact that I am the only one working?
Yes. In the absence of proof to the contrary, properties acquired while parties who are capacitated to contract marriage live together as man and wife without the benefit of marriage lived together, shall be presumed to have been obtained by their joint efforts, work or industry, and shall be owned by them in equal shares. Any property acquired during their union is prima facie presumed to have been obtained through their joint efforts. A party who did not participate in the acquisition of the property shall be considered as having contributed thereto jointly if said party’s “efforts consisted in the care and maintenance of the family household.” Unlike the conjugal partnership of gains, the fruits of the couple’s separate property are not included in the co-ownership. (Valdez v. RTC, Branch 102, Quezon City, G.R. No. 122749, July 31, 1996). Your girlfriend’s acts of taking care of the house and attending to your household needs, if such is the case, may be considered as her contribution.
17. What if I only recently learned that my marriage to my husband was void but he knew all along that our marriage was void. What will happen to our properties?
The share of the party who is in bad faith in the property regime shall be forfeited in favor of their common children. However, if the union produced no children or if the common children or their descendants waive their right to their respective share, the properties shall belong to you, the innocent spouse (Article 147, Family Code).
18. My girlfriend is married to another man but they have since separated and we have been living together as man and wife for several years. What governs our property relation?
You and your girlfriend are deemed co-owners of the properties acquired through your "actual" joint contribution of money, property, or industry in proportion to your respective contributions. Absent any proof of actual contributions, the contributions and corresponding shares are presumed to be equal. The same rule and presumption shall apply to joint deposits of money and evidence of credit. However, since your girlfriend is validly married to another, her share in the co-ownership shall accrue to the absolute community or conjugal partnership existing in her valid marriage. (Article 148, Family Code).
19. My husband and I acquired a house in 1990. I discovered three years later that he sold the house to another person without asking for my permission. Since the house is considered part of our community property, is the transaction void?
Yes, the sale of the house is void. The transaction occurred when the Family Code was already the governing law as regards property relations between spouses. Specifically, Articles 96 and 124 of the Family Code provide that administration and enjoyment of the community property or the conjugal property, as the case may be, shall belong to both spouses jointly. This aligns with the recognition of the State’s obligation to ensure the fundamental equality of women and men before the law (Sections 2 and 5, Republic Act 7192, otherwise known as “Women in Development and Nation Building Act”). The Family Code further states that alienations or encumbrances of the community property or conjugal property without the consent of the other spouse are null and void. However, the special nature of these void transactions can become binding contracts upon the acceptance by the other spouse or upon authorization by the court before the continuing offers are withdrawn by either or both spouses (Cuenco vs. Spouses Bautista, G.R. No. 246445, 30 June 2021).
20. My husband and I bought a residential lot in 1961. I later found out that, sometime in 1963, he sold the lot to another person without asking for my consent. Since the lot is considered part of our conjugal property, is the transaction void?
No, the sale of the lot is merely voidable, i.e., valid until annulled. Since the sale was contracted in 1963, before the effectivity of the Family Code, Articles 165 and 166 in relation to Article 173 of the Civil Code apply. The aforementioned provisions state that even though the husband is the administrator of the conjugal partnership, he cannot alienate or encumber any real property that belongs to the conjugal partnership without the wife’s consent. If he alienates or encumbers such property, the wife may, during the marriage and within ten (10) years from the transaction in question, ask the courts for the annulment of the contract that her husband entered without her consent. The Supreme Court, in the recent case of Spouses Cuenco vs. Spouses Bautista (G.R. No. 246445, 30 June 2021), ruled the transaction as merely voidable and not void. The Court concluded that a sale that fails to comply with Article 166 of the New Civil Code is not void, but merely voidable in accordance with Article 173 of the Civil Code.